It is irrelevant if there are taweel reasons. A fundamental principle of taweel is that it can't contradict the zahir. Haqaiq literature is not concerned with such matters and is more focussed on cosmogony and eschatology. Also, if one were to find some navel-gazing book that gives so-called taweel explanation it should be rejected. The point is that taweel can't be used to justify any barbaric practices. Unfortunately, taweel is merely speculation and it is in many places very far fetched. In the 21st century it is not of much use. Best is to focus on inner spiritual development via straightforward understanding of Qu'ran and leave all these baseless speculative systems behind.malgudidays wrote: ↑Mon Mar 01, 2021 11:49 am @Biradar & Kseeker,
If I may ask,
1. could there be some tawil or Haqiqat explanation for this duration?
2. If pregnancy determination was the only reason for iddah then why would there be different waiting period Iddah(mourning) and Iddah(divorce)?
from what I Know the way Iddah is practised in subcontinent has lot to do with legacy of hindu culture..
which makes it more difficult then it is supposed to be...
More importantly, you bring out an important point: the treatment of Bohra women is driven in a large part by Hindu mistreatment of women and widows. Also, the horrible practice of FGM (for which I am sure Muffy can find taweel too) came about in Ismaili fiqh due to the fact that the Fatimids lived in Africa where this practice was probably prevalent. Qadi Noman picked it up from local customs and now 1000 years later we are still stuck with it.
As to waiting period for pregnancy determination in either case or death or divorce. This is the understanding of most jurists. Some do think the verse I quoted means total seclusion but they are in the minority. There is nothing in the Qur'an in general which says women must completely seclude themselves from society. It is an invention of men who want to control women's sexuality and their independence.